Best answer: Did France control the Philippines?

What country controlled the Philippines?

The Philippines was ruled under the Mexico-based Viceroyalty of New Spain. After this, the colony was directly governed by Spain. Spanish rule ended in 1898 with Spain’s defeat in the Spanish–American War. The Philippines then became a territory of the United States.

Who colonized the Philippines?

The Spanish colonial period of the Philippines began when explorer Ferdinand Magellan came to the islands in 1521 and claimed it as a colony for the Spanish Empire. The period lasted until the Philippine Revolution in 1898.

Is Philippines an empire?

The Philippine Empire (officially the Empire of the Philippines) is an imperial monarchy that has existed since the coup d’état of Nísqua Saval on May 17, 1948, and is considered the only true modern example of an empire.

Philippine Empire (Alternity)

Philippine Empire
Population (in 1997) : 230,765,500

Why did US want Philippines?

Americans who advocated annexation evinced a variety of motivations: desire for commercial opportunities in Asia, concern that the Filipinos were incapable of self-rule, and fear that if the United States did not take control of the islands, another power (such as Germany or Japan) might do so.

Did the United States betray the Philippines?

In the Treaty of Paris, the US agreed to annex the Philippines at the cost of $20 million. Angered by the betrayal, Filipinos declared war. … Otis promised to “drive the Americans into the sea.” By 1902 the US had captured Aguinaldo and devastated a majority of Filipino cities and communities.

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Why did the UK not colonize the Philippines?

BACOLOR, Pampanga—The Philippines did not become a British colony and credit is due, in part, to the loyalty of the Kapampangan, particularly of Bacolor town, to Spain and their bravery in battles. 8, when the town served as the capital of the Spanish colony 250 years ago. …